Polity & Governance

Mr. X, a senior officer, was overseeing a critical vaccination programme during a pandemic. He found that a private service provider responsible for vaccine distribution was compromising on quality to make profits. Despite immense pressure to manage the issue due to vested interests, he raised his voice based on the principles of public administration which he learnt during various training programmes attended across his career. He reported the issue to the appropriate vigilance authority and halted the contract to ensure citizen welfare. Which one among the following principles of public administration was most strongly demonstrated by Mr. X’s actions ?

Ina multi-ethnic district where both economic competition and historical grievances c frequently led to community tensions, a flashpoint has arisen with a Government decision to allocate 1 and for a waste management facility near a tribal hamlet, sparking protests by the tribal community, which claimed that the 1 and was sacred and critical to their cultural identity, At the same time, urban residents and local industries supported the project, citing severe solid waste challenges and health concerns due to lack of a proper disposal site. The conflict has escalated with road blockades, social media campaigns, and allegations of police excesses. As a responsible Government official, you are tasked with resolving the situation through mediation, ensuring a sustainable outcome that balances environmental needs, tribal rights, and urban public health. Consider the following statements with reference to the above : 1. A successful conflict resolution process must begin with acknowledging the cultural concerns of the protesting tribal community before discussing technical alternatives. 2. The Government should move ahead with the project without delay to address urban health concerns, which outweigh the sentiments of a small group. . 3. Creating a multi-stakeholder dialogue platform — including tribal leaders, environmental experts, and municipal representatives —to build —_ mutual understanding and help de-escalate tensions. 4. Conducting an independent Environmental and Social Impact ‘Assessment (ESIA) and _ sharing findings transparently with both sides to facilitate evidence-based decision- making. Which of the statements given above would contribute to the resolution process 2

Ms. X is a mid-level civil service official working in the urban development department of a major city. Recently, she was involved in approving a contract for a public infrastructure project —a new community park. During the approval process, she received a piece of confidential information indicating that one of the shortlisted contractors had a _ history of poor workmanship and allegations of corruption in other cities, though nothing had been legally proven. The Head of the Department, Mr. Y, advised her not to disclose this information to the project committee or the public because it could delay the project and damage the city’s reputation. However, Ms.X believed that withholding such information compromised transparency and public trust. What amongst the following should Ms. X do now ? 1. Immediately disclose the information to the project committee and the public 2. Recommend removing the contractor from the shortlist to protect the project’s integrity 3. Propose a ‘limited disclosure’ to an oversight committee, while keeping the information confidential from the public for the time being Select the answer using the code given below :

X’ was addressing a seminar on the meaning of oe term ‘law’ as provided under Article 13, d Part III of the Constitution ‘of India. explained that the meaning of the term ‘law’ in the Constitution of India was very comprehensive. It included ordinances, orders and even rules and regulations. ‘Y pointed out that the term ‘law’ in Article 13 also included custom or usage having in the territory of India the force of law, to which ‘X’ was not convinced. Based on the above, select the correct conclusion from the options given below :

Consider the following statements with reference to the Constitution of India : 1. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Constitution of India will be officially called the ‘Constitution of India’. 2. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that specifies that the Indian Independence Act, 1947 and the Government of India Act, 1935 stand repealed. 3. There is no Article in the Constitution of India that mentions 26" January, 1950 as the date of the commencement of the Constitution of India. Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?

Which of the following statements with regard < to the persons with disabilities in India is/are ; correct ? s d 1. The Rights of Persons with Disabilities i ‘Act, an Act passed by the Parliament of x India in 2018, mandates reservation in “ education and employment, places a legal duty on Governments to ensure i. accessibility and non-discrimination. a 2. The Sugamya Bharat Abhiyan focuses on achieving universal accessibility a for Persons with Disabilities across three key domains — built infrastructure, " transport systems and information and communication technology. on ne 3. The National Divyangjan Finance and ly Development Corporation (NDFDC) is - a public sector organisation set up by = the Ministry of Corporate Affairs as ad a not-for-profit company to promote entrepreneurship among Persons with - Disabilities (PwDs). he Select the answer using the code given below : ed (a) land2 (b) 2 only ai (c) “ 1and3 (ad) 1 only

Consider the following statements about the provisions pertaining to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes in India : 1. _ Provisions regarding the administration of the Tribal Areas in the States of Assam, Meghalaya, Tripura and Mizoram are given in the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India. 2: Some tribes of India are entitled to exemption from paying Income Tax on certain incomes. 8. The Constitution of India provides for reservation of seats in Panchayats for women belonging to the Scheduled Castes and the Scheduled Tribes. Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?

Consider the following statements in respect a of questions asked by the Members in the Parliament of India : 1. Unstarred questions are those to which a Member desires an oral answer in the House. 2. Starred questions are those to which a Member desires a written answer. 3. No supplementary question can be asked on an unstarred question. Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?

Consider the following statements about the Committee on the Welfare of Scheduled Castes and Scheduled ‘Tribes of the Parliament of India : 1. Although members of this Committee are clected from both Houses of Parliament, the Chairperson of this Committee is appointed by the Chairman of the Rajya Sabha. 2. Twenty members are elected by the Rajya Sabha and ten members by the Lok Sabha. 3. No Minister, except for the Union Minister of Social Justice and Empowerment, is eligible to be a member of this Committee. 4, Members are elected for a fixed term of two years from the date they enter their office. Which one of the following conclusions based on the above statements is correct ?

Consider the following statements about Mission Sudarshan Chakra of India : 1. It aims to enhance India’s air defence, ballistic missile defence and aerial offensive capabilities. 2. This Mission is being designed to enhance rapid, precise, and powerful defence responses, reinforcing India’s strategic autonomy. 3. One of the aims of this Mission is to cover all public places of India by an expanded nationwide security shield by 2035. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Which of the following statements about a Zero First Information Report (Zero FIR) under the Bharatiya Nagarik Suraksha Sanhita (BNSS), 2023 is/are correct ? 1. A Zero FIR can be lodged at a police station, even though the place of commission of a cognizable/non-cognizable offence is outside the territorial jurisdiction of that police station. ; 2. The Officer-in-Charge of the police station where a Zero FIR has been lodged may, with the permission of the competent authority, initiate a preliminary enquiry. . 3. Under Zero FIR, it is obligatory for the informant to furnish information electronically. Select the answer using the code given below : (a) 1,2and3 (b) 2and 3 only c) 1 only - @ 2 only ae

With reference to the organisations under the Government of India, consider the following details : Sl. Organisation] Function Controlling No. Union Ministry 1. Central To coordinate Ministry of Economic between Home Intelligence various law Affairs Bureau enforcement (CEIB) agencies 2. Serious To Ministry of Fraud investigate Finance Investigation complex Office (SFIO) corporate frauds 3. Central To preserve Ministry of Bureau of values in Personnel, - Investigation public life Public (CBI) andensure Grievances the health of and Pension the national economy In how many of the above rows are the given details correctly matched ?

Which of the following statements with respect to the Revamped Rashtriya Gram Swaraj Abhiyan (RGSA) is/are correct ? 1. The period of its implementation is 1* April, 2021 to 31% March, 2026. 2. The key objective of the Revamped RGSA is to develop the governance capabilities of the Panchayati Raj Institutions to deliver on the Sustainable Development Goals. 3. The share of the Central funding for the Revamped RGSA is 100% for all States and Union Territories. Select the answer using the code given below :

Consider statements that an Ordinance can abridge a Fundamental Right and can come into effect retrospectively.

Consider statements about the Fifth Schedule: State Government losing executive power, Union takeover, and role of Governor/local administration.

How many of the Inter-State Council, National Security Council and Zonal Councils were established under provisions of the Constitution?

Consider statements on the Governor acting in discretion and the President reserving a State bill without it being forwarded by the Governor.

Which listed constitutional amendment subjects require ratification by at least half the State Legislatures before presidential assent?

Consider statements on State and Union powers in Scheduled Areas under the Fifth Schedule.

Match organisations such as the National Automotive Board, Coir Board and National Centre for Mass Spectrometry with their ministries.

Which subjects fall under the Union/State distribution provisions in the Seventh Schedule, including extent of executive power and Governor’s office?

Consider statements on the Governor’s immunity from court proceedings, criminal proceedings during office, and legislative privilege.

Consider statements on the exercise of President’s power, criminal proceedings against the Governor, and legislative privilege.

Consider statements on the Speaker continuing until immediately before the first meeting after dissolution, resignation from political party on election, and removal by resolution of the House.

Consider statements concerning a member’s disqualification from the House and the meaning of “political party” in the Constitution.

Consider statements that State Governments have no power over concessions for minor minerals and that the Central Government notifies minor minerals.

Consider statements on Panchayats at intermediate level, minimum age of membership, and the role of the State Finance Commission.

Consider statements on Lokpal jurisdiction over Indian public servants abroad, appointment of Chairperson, and minimum age of Chairperson/Member.

With reference to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha, consider the following statements: While any resolution for the removal of the Speaker of the Lok Sabha is under consideration: 1. He/She shall not preside. 2. He/She shall not have the right to speak. 3. He/She shall not be entitled to vote on the resolution in the first instance. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

With reference to the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements: 1. A bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its dissolution. 2. A bill passed by the Lok Sabha and pending in the Rajya Sabha lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. 3. A bill in regard to which the President of India notified his/her intention to summon the Houses to a joint sitting lapses on the dissolution of the Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements: 1. Prorogation of a House by the President of India does not require the advice of the Council of Ministers. 2. Prorogation of a House is generally done after the House is adjourned sine die but there is no bar to the President of India prorogating the House which is in session. 3. Dissolution of the Lok Sabha is done by the President of India who, save in exceptional circumstances, does so on the advice of the Council of Ministers. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

With reference to the Digital India Land Records Modernisation Programme, consider the following statements: 1. To implement the scheme, the Central Government provides 100% funding. 2. Under the Scheme, Cadastral Maps are digitized. 3. An initiative has been undertaken to transliterate the Records of Rights from local language to any of the languages recognized by the Constitution of India. Which of the statements given above are correct?

With reference to the ‘Pradhan Mantri Surakshit Matritva Abhiyan’, consider the following statements: 1. This scheme guarantees a minimum package of antenatal care services to women in their second and third trimesters of pregnancy and six months post-delivery health care service in any government health facility. 2. Under this scheme, private sector health care providers of certain specialties can volunteer to provide service at nearby government health facilities. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

With reference to the Pradhan Mantri Shram Yogi Maan-dhan (PM-SYM) Yojana, consider the following statements: 1. The entry age group for enrolment in the scheme is 21 to 40 years. 2. Age specific contribution shall be made by the beneficiary. 3. Each subscriber under the scheme shall receive a minimum pension of Rs. 3,000 per month after attaining the age of 60 years. 4. Family pension is applicable to the spouse and unmarried daughters. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding ‘Nari Shakti Vandan Adhiniyam’: 1. Provisions will come into effect from 18th Lok Sabha. 2. This will be in force for 15 years after becoming an Act. 3. There are provisions for the reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes Women within the quota reserved for the Scheduled Castes. Which of the statements given above are correct?

A Writ of Prohibition is an order issued by the Supreme Court or High Courts to:

Consider the following statements: 1. It is the Governor of the State who recognizes and declares any community of that State as a Scheduled Tribe. 2. A community declared as a Scheduled Tribe in a State need not be so in another State. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

With reference to Union Budget, consider the following statements: 1. The Union Finance Minister on behalf of the Prime Minister lays the Annual Financial Statement before both the Houses of Parliament. 2. At the Union level, no demand for a grant can be made except on the recommendation of the President of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

How many Delimitation Commissions have been constituted by the Government of India till December 2023?

The Constitution (71st Amendment) Act, 1992 amends the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution to include which of the following languages? 1. Konkani 2. Manipuri 3. Nepali 4. Maithili. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Which of the following statements are correct about the Constitution of India? 1. Powers of the Municipalities are given in Part IX A of the Constitution. 2. Emergency provisions are given in Part XVIII of the Constitution. 3. Provisions related to the amendment of the Constitution are given in Part XX of the Constitution. Select the answer using the code given below:

Which one of the following statements is correct as per the Constitution of India?

Under Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India, has the Supreme Court of India placed the Right to Privacy?

What are the duties of the Chief of Defence Staff (CDS) as Head of the Department of Military Affairs? 1. Permanent Chairman of Chiefs of Staff Committee. 2. Exercise military command over the three Service Chiefs. 3. Principal Military Advisor to Defence Minister on all tri-Service matters. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Which of the following Statements about the Ethics Committee in the Lok Sabha are correct? 1. Initially it was an ad-hoc Committee. 2. Only a Member of the Lok Sabha can make a complaint relating to unethical conduct of a member of the Lok Sabha. 3. This Committee cannot take up any matter which is sub-judice. Select the answer using the code given below:

As per Article 368 of the Constitution of India, the Parliament may amend any provision of the Constitution by way of: 1. Addition 2. Variation 3. Repeal. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Consider the following countries: 1. Italy 2. Japan 3. Nigeri 4. South Korea 5. South Africa. Which of the above countries are frequently mentioned in the media for their low birth rates, or ageing population or declining population?

Which of the following statements are correct in respect of a Money Bill in the Parliament? 1. Article 109 mentions special procedure in respect of Money Bills. 2. A Money Bill shall not be introduced in the Council of States. 3. The Rajya Sabha can either approve the Bill or suggest changes but cannot reject it. 4. Amendments to a Money Bill suggested by the Rajya Sabha have to be accepted by the Lok Sabha. Select the answer using the code given below:

The North Eastern Council (NEC) was established by the North Eastern Council Act, 1971. Subsequent to the amendment of NEC Act in 2002, the Council comprises which of the following members? 1. Governor of the Constituent State 2. Chief Minister of the Constituent State 3. Three Members to be nominated by the President of India 4. The Home Minister of India. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Consider the following statements regarding World Toilet Organization: 1. It is one of the agencies of the United Nations. 2. World Toilet Summit, World Toilet Day and World Toilet College are the initiatives of this organization, to inspire action to tackle the global sanitation crisis. 3. The main focus of its function is to grant funds to the least developed countries and developing countries to achieve the end of open defecation. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

In essence, what does 'Due Process of Law' mean?

Consider the following statements : Statement-! : In India, prisons are managed . by State Govemments with their own rules and regulations for the day-to-day administration of prisons. Statement-11 : In India, prisons are governed by the Prisons Act, 1894 which expressly kept the subject of prisons in the control of Provincial Governments. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Which one of the follo.wing statements best reflects the Chief purpose of the 'Constitution' of a country?

In India, which one of the following Constitutional Amendments was widely believed to be enacted to overcome the judicial interpretations of the Fundamental Rights?

Consider the following organizations/ bodies in India : 1. The National Commission for Backward Classes 2. The National Human Rights Commission 3. The National Law Commission 4. The National Consumer Disputes Redressal Commission How many of the above are constitutional bodies?

Consider the following statements : 1. If the election of the President of India is declared void by ~he Supreme Court of India, all acts done by him/her in the performance of duties of hisfher office of President before the date of decision become invalid. 2. Election for the post of the President of India can be postponed on the ground that some Legislative Assemblies have been dissolved and elections are yet to take place. 3. When a Bill is presented to the President of India, the Constitution prescribes time limits within which he/she has to declare hisfher assent. How many of the above statements are correct?

With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements : 1. When the Lok Sabha transmits Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill. 2. When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations. 3. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill. How many of the above statements are correct?

Consider the following statements : Once the Central Government notifies an area as a 'Community Reserve' 1. the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest 2. hunting is not allowed in such area 3. people of such area are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce 4. people of such area are allowed traditional agricultural practices How many of the above statements are correct.?

With reference to 'Scheduled Areas' in India, consider the following statements : 1. Within a State, the notification of an area as Scheduled Area takes place th!ough an Order of the President. 2. The largest administrative unit forming the Scheduled Area is the District and the lowest is the cluster of villages in the Block. 3. The Chief Ministers Of the concerned States are required to submit annual reports to the Union Home Ministry on the administration of Scheduled Areas in the States. How many of the above statements are correct?

Consider the following statements : Statement-! : The Supreme Court of India has held in some judgements .that the reservation policies made under Article 16(4) of the Constitution of India would be limited by Article 335 for maintenance of efficiency of administration. Statement-11 : Article 335 of the Constitution of India defmes the term 'efficiency of administration'. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana : 1. It is a safe moth~rhood intervention of the State Health Departments. 2. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women. 3. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women. 4. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age. How many of the statements given above are correct?

Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy : 1. It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for pre-school children, adolescents and pregnant women. 2. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of child- birth. 3. It provides for periodic deworming. to children and adolescents. 4. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis. I I I . How many of the statements given above are correct?

Consider the following statements : 1. The Self-Help Group (SHG) programme was originally initiated by the State Bank of India by providing microcredit to the financially deprived. 2. In an SHG, all members of a group take responsibility for a loan that an individual member takes. 3. The Regional Rural Banks and Scheduled Commercial Banks support SHGs. How many of the above statements are correct?

Consider the following statements : Statement-! : India's public sector health care system largely focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive and rehabilitative care. Statement-11 : Under India's decentralized approach to health care delivery, the States are primarily responsible for organizing health services. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

Consider the following statements : 1. According to the Constitution of India, the Central Government has a duty to protect States from internal disturbances. 2. The Constitution of India exempts the States from providing legal counsel to a person being held for preventive detention. 3. According to the Prevention of Terrorism Act, 2002, confession of the accused before the police cannot be used as evidence. How many of the above statements are correct?

Consider the following statements in respect of election to the President of India : 1. The members nominated to either House of the Parliament or the Legislatiye Assemblies of States are also eligible to be included in the Electoral College. 2. Higher the number of elective Assembly seats, higher is the value of vote of each MLA of that State. 3. The value of vote of each MLA of Madhya Pradesh is greater than that of Kerala. 4. The value of vote of each MLA of Puducherry is higher than that of Arunachal Pradesh because the ratio of total population to total number of elective seats in Puducherry is greater as compared to Arunachal Pradesh. How many of the above statements are correct?

Consider the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day : Statement-! : The Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens. Statement-11 : On 26th November, 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft Constitution of India. Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

With reference to Home Guards, consid~r the. following statements : 1. Home Guards are raised under the Home. Guards Act and Rules of the Central Government. 2. The role of the Home Guards is to serve as an auxiliary force to the police in maintenance of internal security. 3. To prevent infiltration on .the international border/ coastal areas, the Border Wing Home Guards Battalions have been raised in some States. How many of the above statements are correct?

With reference to India, consider the following pairs : The Act under which it is covered Action 1. Unauthorized wearing : The Official ~ecrets of police or military Act, 1923 uniforms 2. Knowingly misleading : The Indian Evi- or otherwise inter- dence Act, 1872 fering with a police officer or military officer when engaged in their duties 3. Celebratory gunfire : The Arms (Amend- which can endanger ment) Act, 2019 the personal safety of others How many of the correctly matched? above pairs are

Consider the following statements: 1. Pursuant to the report of H.N. Sanyal Committee, the Contempt of Courts Act, 1971 was passed. 2. The Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court and the High Courts to punish for contempt of themselves. Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020 3. The Constitution of India defines Civil Contempt and Criminal Contempt. 4. In India, the Parliament is vested with the powers to make laws on Contempt of Court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

With reference to India, consider the following statements: 1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognised as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates. 2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements: 1. A bill amending the Constitution requires a prior recommendation of the Président of India. 2. When a Constitution Amendment Bill is presented to the President of India, it is obligatory for the President of India to give his/her assent. 3. A Constitution Amendment Bill must be passed by both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha by a special majority and there is no provision for joint sitting. Which of the statements given above are correct?

Consider the following statements: 1. The Constitution of India classifies the ministers into four ranks viz. Cabinet Minister, Minister of State with Independent Charge, Minister of State and Deputy Minister. Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020 2. The total number of ministers in the Union Government, including the Prime Minister, shall not exceed 15 percent of the total number of members in the Lok Sabha. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Which of the following is/are the exclusive power(s) of Lok Sabha? 1. To ratify the declaration of Emergency 2. To pass a motion of no-confidence against the Council of Ministers 3. To impeach the President of India Select the correct answer using the code given below:

With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements: 1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House. 2. The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements:. 1. Attorney General of India and Solicitor General of India are the only officers of the Government who are allowed to participate in the meetings of the Parliament of India. 2. According to the Constitution of India, the Attorney General of India submits his resignation when the Government which appointed him resigns. Which of the statements given above is/are correct? Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020

With reference to the writs issued by the Courts in India, consider the following statements: 1. Mandamus will not lie against a private organisation unless it is entrusted with a public duty. 2. Mandamus will not lie against a Company even though it may be a Government Company. 3. Any public minded person can be a petitioner to move the Court to obtain the writ of Quo Warranto. Which of the statements given above are correct?

With reference to Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission, consider the following statements: 1. Private and public hospitals must adopt it. 2. As it aims to achieve universal health coverage, every citizen of India should be part of it ultimately. 3. It has seamless portability across the country. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

With reference to Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha, consider the following statements: 1. As per the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha, the election of Deputy Speaker shall be held on such date as the Speaker may fix. 2. There is a mandatory provision that the election of a candidate, as Deputy Speaker of Lok Sabha shall be from either the principal opposition party or the ruling party. 3. The Deputy Speaker has the same power as of the Speaker when presiding over the sitting of the House and no appeal lies against his rulings. 4. The well-established parliamentary practice regarding the appointment of Deputy Speaker is that the motion is moved by the Speaker and duly seconded by the Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above are correct? Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020

Consider the following: 1. Aarogya Setu 2. COWIN 3. DigiLocker 4. DIKSHA Which of the above are built on to open-source digital platforms?

In India, which one of the following Compiles information on industrial disputes, closures, retrenchments and lay-offs in factories employing workers?

If a Particular area is brought unde the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statement best reflects the consequence of it?

Consider the following statements 1. The India Sanitation Coalition is a platform to promote sustainable sanitation and is funded by the Government of India and the World Health Organization. 2. The National Institute of Urban Affairs is an apex body of the Ministry of Housing and Urban Affairs in Government of India and provides innovative solutions to address the challenges of Urban India. Road, Patna, Bihar 800001 | Hyderabad - 1st & 2nd Floor, SM Plaza, RTC X Rd, Indira Park Road, Jawahar Nagar, Hyderabad, Telangana 500020 Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Under the Indian Constitution, concentration of wealth violates

What is the position of the Right to Property in India?

What was the exact constitutional status of India on 26th January, 1950?

Constitutional government means

Consider the following statements: 1. ‘Right to the City’ is an agreed human right and the UN-Habitat monitors the commitments made by each country in this regard. 2. ‘Right to the City’ gives every occupant of the city the right to reclaim public spaces and public participation in the city. 3. ‘Right to the City’ means that the State cannot deny any public service or facility to the unauthorized colonies in the city. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

With reference to India, consider the following statements: 1. Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such accused is locked up in a police station, not in jail. 2. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

With reference to India, consider the following statements: 1. When a prisoner makes a sufficient case, parole cannot be denied to such prisoner because it becomes a matter of his/her right. 2. State Governments have their own Prisoners Release on Parole Rules. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

At the national level, which ministry is the nodal agency to ensure effective implementation of the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006?

A legislation which confers on the executive or administrative authority an unguided and uncontrolled discretionary power in the matter of application of law violates which Article of the Constitution of India?

Which one of the following in Indian polity is an essential feature that indicates that it is federal in character?

Which one of the following best defines the term ‘State’?

With reference to Indian judiciary, consider the following statements: 1. Any retired judge of the Supreme Court of India can be called back to sit and act as a Supreme Court judge by the Chief Justice of India with prior permission of the President of India. 2. A High Court in India has the power to review its own judgement as the Supreme Court does. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

With reference to India, consider the following statements: 1. There is only one citizenship and one domicile. 2. A citizen by birth only can become the Head of State. 3. A foreigner once granted the citizenship cannot be deprived of it under any circumstances. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Which one of the following factors constitutes the best safeguard of liberty in a liberal democracy?

We adopted parliamentary democracy based on the British model, but how does our model differ from that model? 1. As regards legislation, the British Parliament is supreme or sovereign but in India, the power of the Parliament to legislate is limited. 2. In India, matters related to the constitutionality of the Amendment of an Act of Parliament are referred to the Constitution Bench by the Supreme Court. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements: 1. N. Gopalaswamy Iyengar Committee suggested that a minister and a secretary be designated solely for pursuing the subject of administrative reform and promoting it. 2. In 1970, the Department of Personnel was constituted on the recommendation of the Administrative Reforms Commission, 1966, and this was placed under the Prime Minister’s charge. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

‘Right to Privacy’ is protected under which Article of the Constitution of India?

Consider the following statements: 1. In India, there is no law restricting the candidates from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from three constituencies. 2. In 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies. 3. As per the existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from many constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections to the constituencies vacated by him/her in the event of him/her winning in all the constituencies. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

A Parliamentary System of Government is one in which

Which part of the Constitution of India declares the ideal of welfare state?

Consider the following statements: 1. The Constitution of India defines its ‘Basic structure’ in terms of federalism, secularism, fundamental rights and democracy 2. The Constitution of India provides for ‘judicial review’ to safeguard the citizens’ liberties and to preserve the ideals on which the Constitution is based Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

One common agreement between Gandhism and Marxism is

In the context of India, which one of the following is the characteristic appropriate for bureaucracy?

The Preamble to the Constitution of India is

With reference to the provisions contained in Part IV of the Constitution of India, which of the following statements is/are correct? 1. They shall be enforceable by courts. 2. They shall not be enforceable by any court. 3. The principles laid down in this part are to influence the making of laws by the State. Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Consider the following statements : 1. According to the Constitution of India a person who is eligible to vote can be made a minister in a State for six months’ even if he/she is not a member of the Legislature of that State. 2. According to the Representation of People Act, 1951, a person convicted of a criminal offence and sentenced to imprisonment for five years is permanently disqualified from contesting an election even after his release from prison. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Consider the following statements : 1. The President of India can summon a session of the Parliament at such place as he/she thinks fit. 2. The Constitution of India provides for three sessions of the Parliament in a year, but it is not mandatory to conduct all three sessions. 3. There is no minimum number of days that the Parliament is required to meet in a year. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements : 1. Aadhaar metadata cannot be stored for more than three months. 2. State cannot enter into any contract with private corporations for sharing of Aadhaar data. 3. Aadhaar is mandatory for obtaining insurance products. 4. Aadhaar is mandatory for getting benefits funded out of the Consolidated Fund of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Rajya Sabha has equal powers with Lok Sabha in

With reference to the funds under Members of Parliament Local Area Development Scheme (MPLADS), which of the following statements are correct ? 1. MPLADS funds must be used to create durable assets like physical infrastructure for health, education, etc. 2. A specified portion of each MP’s fund must benefit SC/ST populations 3. MPLADS funds are sanctioned on yearly basis and the unused funds cannot be carried forward to the next year. 4. The district authority must inspect at least 10% of all works under implementation every year. Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Which one of the following categories of Fundamental Rights incorporate protection against untouchability as a form of discrimination?

In India, separation of judiciary from the executive is enjoined by

A constitutional government by definition is a

Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the following parts of the Constitution of India reflect/reflects the principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948)? 1. Preamble 2. Directive Principles of State Policy 3. Fundamental Duties Select the correct answer using the code given below :

In India, Legal Services Authorities provide free legal services to which of the following type of citizens ? 1. Person with an annual income of less than Rs. 1,00,000 2. Transgender with an annual income of less than Rs. 2,00,000 3. Member of Other Backward Classes (OBC) with an annual income of less than Rs. 3,00,000 4. All Senior Citizens Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Which of the following statements is/are correct rewarding the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017? 1. Pregnant women are entitled for three months per-delivery and three months per-delivery paid leave. 2. Enterprises with crèches must allow the mother minimum six crèche visits daily. 3. Women whit two children get reduced entitlements. Selected the Corrected answer using the code given below.

In the Context of any country, which one of the following would be considered as part of its social capitals?

Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?

In India which of the following the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunication, insurance electricity, etc.? 1. Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament 2. Parliament Department Relate Standing Committees 3. Financial Commission 4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission 5. NITI Aayog. Select the correct answer using the code given below.

With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements : 1. No High court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid. 2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?

Consider the following statements about particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India: 1. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory. 2. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status. 3. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far. 4. Trular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs. Which of the statements given above are correct?

With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?

With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a state in India, consider the following statements: 1. The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year. 2. When a state Legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Which of the Constitution of India safeguards one’s right to marry the person of one’s choice?

Consider the following statements: As per the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 2018 1. if rules for fixed-term employment are implemented, it becomes easier for the firms/companies to lay off workers. 2. no notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of temporary workman. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements: 1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review. 2. The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statement: 1. The motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968 2. The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what constitutes ‘incapacity and proved misbehaviour’ of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India. 3. The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968 4. If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the Prime minister ship of

Consider the following statements: 1. The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’. 2. The above-mentioned Act was amended five times. 3. The term ‘Office of Profit’. Which of the statements given above is /are Correct?

Under which Schedule of the constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?

Consider the following statements : 1. In the first Lok Sabha, the single largest party in the opposition was the Swatantra Party. 2. In the Lok Sabha, a “Leader of the Opposition” was recognised for the first time in 1969. 3. In the Lok Sabha, if a party does not have a minimum of 75 members, its leader cannot be recognised as the Leader of the Opposition. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements : 1. The Parliament of India can place a particular law in the Ninth Schedule of the Constitution of India. 2. The validity of a law placed in the Ninth Schedule cannot be examined by any court and no judgement can be made on it. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements: 1. Aadhaar card can be used as a proof of citizenship or domicile. 2. Once issued, Aadhaar number cannot be deactivated or omitted by the Issuing Authority. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

The identity platform \Aadhaar’ provides open “Application Programming Interfaces (APIs)”. What does it imply? 1. It can be integrated into any electronic device. 2. Online authentication using iris is possible. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

With reference to the Parliament of India, which of the following Parliamentary Committees scrutinizes and reports to the Ilouse whether the powers to make regulations, rules, sub-rules, by-laws, etc. conrerred by the Constitution or delegated by the Parliament are being properly exercised by the Executive within the scope of such delegation ?

Consider the following statements: 1. As per the Right to Education (RTE) Act, to be eligible for appointment as a teacher in a State, a person would be required to possess the minimum qualification laid down by the concerned State Council of Teacher Education. 2. As per the RTE Act, for teaching primary classes, a candidate is required to pass a Teacher Eligibility Test conducted in accordance with the National Council of Teacher Education guidelines. 3. In India, more than 90% of teacher -5 education institutions are directly under the State Governments. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements 1. The Food Safety and Standards Act, 2006 replaced the Prevention of Food Adulteration Act, 1954. 2. The Food Safety and Standards Authority of India (FSSAI) is under the charge of Director General of Health Services in the Union Ministry of Health and Family Welfare. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

With reference to the provisions made under the National Food Security Act, 2013 consider the following statements: 1. The families coming under the category of ‘below poverty line (BPL)’ only are eligible to receive subsidised grains. 2. The eldest woman in a household, of age 18 years or above, shall be the head of the household for the purpose of issuance of a ration card. 3. Pregnant women and lactating mothers are entitled to a take-home ration’ of 1600 calories per day during pregnancy and for six months thereafter. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

International Labour Organization’s Conventions 138 and 182 are related to

Regarding Money Bill, which of the following statements is not correct?

With reference to the election of the President of India, consider the following statements: 1. The value of the vote of each MLA varies from State to State. 2. The value of the vote of MPs of the Lok Sabha is more than the value of the vote of MPs of the Rajya Sabha. Which of following statements given above is/are Correct?

Which of the following is/are the aim/aims of “Digital India” Plan of the Government of India? 1. Formation of India’s own Internet companies like China did. 2. Establish a policy framework to encourage overseas multinational corporations that collect Big Data to build their large data centres within our national geographical boundaries. 3 Connect many of our villages to the Internet and bring Wi-Fi to many of our school, public places and major tourist Select the correct answer using the code given below

In the federation established by The Government on India Act of 1935. Residuary Power were given to the

Consider the following statements: 1. The Speaker of the Legislative Assembly Shall vacate his/her office if he/she ceases to be a member of the Assembly. 2. Whenever the Legislative Assembly is dissolved, the Speaker shall vacate his/her immediately. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Which one of the following reflects the nicest, appropriate relationship between law and liberty?

Consider the following statements: 1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office. 2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Which of the following are regarded as the main features of the “Rule of Law” ? 1. Limitation of powers 2. Equality before law 3. People’s responsibility to the Government 4. Liberty and civil rights Select the correct answer using the code given below :

If the President of India exercises his power as provided under Article 356 of the Constitution in respect of a particular State, then

With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements 1. It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment. 2. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, financial and digital literacy. 3. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

Right to Privacy is protected as an intrinsic part of Right to Life and Personal Liberty. Which of the following in the Constitution of India correctly and appropriately imply the above statement?

With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements: 1. A private member’s bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India. 2. Recently, a private member’s bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

‘Recognition of Prior Learning Scheme’ is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to

One of the implications of equality in society is the absence of

Which principle among the following was added to the Directive Principles of State Policy by the 42nd Amendment to the Constitution?

Which one of the following statements is correct?

Local self government can be best explained as an exercise in

Consider the following statements : With reference to the Constitution of India, the Directive Principles of State Policy constitutes limitation upon 1. Legislative Function 2. Executive Function Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Which of the following are the objectives of ‘National Nutrition Mission’? 1. To create awareness relating to malnutrition among pregnant women and lactating mothers. 2. To reduce the incidence of anaemia among young children, adolescent girls and women 3. To promote the consumption of millets coarse cereals and unpolished rice 4. To promote the consumption of poultry eggs. Select the correct answer using the codes given below

Which of the following statements is/are true of the Fundamental Duties of an Indian citizen? 1. A legislative process has been provided to enforce these duties. 2. They are correlative to legal duties. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Which one of the following objectives is not embodied in the Preamble to the Constitution of India?

With reference to ‘Asia-Pacific Ministerial Conference on Housing and Urban Development [APMCHUD], consider the following statements: 1. The first APMCHUD was held in India in 2006 on the theme ‘Emerging Urban Forms’ – Policy Response and Governance Structure’. 2. India host all the Annual Ministerial Conferences in partnership with ADB APEC and ASEAN. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Democracy’s superior virtue lies in the fact that it calls into activity

The main advantage of the parliamentary form of government is that

In the context of India, which one of the following is the correct relationship between Rights and Duties?

The mind of the makers of the Constitution of India is reflected in which of the following?

The Parliament of India exercises control over the functions of the Council of Ministers through 1. Adjournment motion 2. Question hour 3. Supplementary questions Select the correct answer using the code given below:

For election to the Lok Sabha, a nomination paper can be filed by

With reference to the role of UN-Habitat in the United Nations programme working towards a better urban future, which of the statements is/are correct? 1. UN-Habitat has been mandated by the United Nations General Assembly to promote socially and environmentally sustainable towns and cities to provide adequate shelter for all. 2. Its partners are either governments or local urban authorities only. 3. UN-Habitat contributes to the overall objective of the United Nations system to reduce poverty and to promote access-to safe drinking water and bask sanitation. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

With reference to ‘National Skills Qualification Framework (NSQF)’, which of the statements given below is/are correct? 1. Under NSQF, a learner can acquire the certification for competency only through formal learning. 2. An outcome expected from the implementation of NSQF is the mobility between vocational and general education: Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Consider the following in respect of ‘National Career Service’: 1. National Career Service is an initiative of the Department of Personnel and Training, Government of India. 2. National Career Service has been launched in a Mission Mode to improve the employment opportunities to uneducated youth of the country. Which of the above statements is/are correct?

Consider the following statements: 1. In the election for Lok Sabha or State Assembly, the winning candidate must get at least 50 percent of the votes polled, to be declared elected. 2. According to the provisions laid down in the Constitution of India, in Lok Sabha, the Speaker’s post goes to the majority party and the Deputy Speaker’s to the Opposition. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Right to vote and to be elected in India is a

What is the purpose of Vidyanjali Yojana’? 1. To enable the famous foreign campuses in India. 2. To increase the quality of education provided in government schools by taking help from the private sector and the community. 3. To encourage voluntary monetary contributions from private individuals and organizations so as to improve the infrastructure facilities for primary and secondary schools. Select the correct answer using the code given below:

What is the aim of the programme ‘Unnat Bharat Abhiyan’ ?

Consider the following statements: 1. The Election Commission of India is a ‘ five-member body. 2. Union Ministry of Home Affairs decides the election schedule for the conduct of both general elections and bye-elections. 3. Election Commission resolves the disputes relating to splits/mergers of recognized political parties. Which of the statements given above is/are correct ?

In India, Judicial Review implies

Which of the following are not necessarily the consequences of the proclamation of the President’s rule in a State? 1. Dissolution of the State Legislative Assembly 2. Removal of the Council of Ministers in the State 3. Dissolution of the local bodies Select the correct answer using the code given below:

Which of the following are envisaged by the Right against Exploitation in the Constitution of India? 1. Prohibition of traffic in human beings and forced labour 2. Abolition of untouchability 3. Protection of the interests of minorities 4. Prohibition of employment of children in factories and mines Select the correct answer using the code given below :

Out of the’ ‘following statements, choose the one that brings out the principle underlying the Cabinet form of Government :

Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian federalism?

1. As per the Act, Gram Nyayalayas can hear only civil cases and not criminal cases. 2. The Act allows local social activists as mediators/reconciliators.

1 It is a digital locker system offered by the Government under Digital India Programme. 2. It allows you to access your e-documents irrespective of your physical location.

1. The minimum age prescribed for any person to be a member of Panchayat is 25 years. 2. A Panchayat reconstituted after premature dissolution continues only for the remainder period. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. A Bill pending in the Lok Sabha lapses on its prorogation. 2. A Bill pending in the Rajya Sabha, which has not been passed by the Lok Sabha, shall not lapse on dissolution of the Lok Sabha.

1. The Chief Secretary in a State is appointed by the Governor of that State. 2. The Chief Secretary in a State has a fixed tenure. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding the Directive Principles of State Policy

Consider the following statements:

When a bill is referred to a joint sitting of both the Houses of the Parliament, it has to be passed by

Consider the following statements:

The provisions in Fifth Schedule and Sixth Schedule in the Constitution of India are made in order to

With reference to the Union Government, consider the following statements:

Who/Which of the following is the custodian of the Constitution of India?

Consider the following statements:

“To uphold and protect the Sovereignty, Unity and Integrity of India” is a provision made in the

The fundamental object of Panchayati Raj system is to ensure which among the following?

The ideal of ‘Welfare State’ in the Indian Constitution is enshrined in its

There is a Parliamentary System of Government in India because the

Which one of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India contains provisions regarding anti-defection?

In the Constitution of India, promotion of international peace and security is included in the

Which of the following is / are the function/functions of the Cabinet Secretariat? 1. Preparation of agenda for Cabinet Meetings 2. Secretarial assistance to Cabinet Committees 3. Allocation of financial resources to the Ministries

Consider the following statements: A Constitutional Government is one which 1. places effective restrictions on individual liberty in the interest of State Authority 2. places effective restrictions on the Authority of the State in the interest of individual liberty Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

Which of the following are the discretionary powers given to the Governor of a State? 1. Sending a report to the President of India for imposing the President’s rule 2. Appointing the Ministers 3. Reserving certain bills passed by the State Legislature for consideration of the President of India 4. Making the rules to conduct the business of the State Government

Consider the following statements: 1. The President shall make rules for the more convenient transaction of the business of the Government of India, and for the allocation among Ministers of the said business. 2. All executive actions of the Government of India shall be expressed to be taken in the name of the Prime Minister. Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

Consider the following statements regarding a No-Confidence Motion in India: 1. There is no mention of a No-Confidence Motion in the Constitution of India. 2. A Motion of No-Confidence can be introduced in the Lok Sabha only. Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

The power of the Supreme Court of India to decide disputes between the Centre and the States falls under its

The power to increase the number of judges in the Supreme Court of India is vested in

What are the significances of a practical approach to sugarcane production known as ‘Sustainable Sugarcane Initiative’? 1. Seed cost is very low in this compared to the conventional method of cultivation. 2. Drip irrigation can be practiced very effectively in this. 3. There is no application of chemical/ inorganic fertilizers at all in this. 4. The scope for intercropping is more in this compared to the conventional method of cultivation.

If a wetland of international importance is brought under the ‘Montreux Record’, what does it imply?

With reference to a grouping of countries known as BRICS, consider the following statements: 1. The First Summit of BRICS was held in Rio de Janeiro in 2009. 2. South Africa was the last to join the BRICS grouping. Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

Consider the following diseases 1. Diphtheria 2. Chickenpox 3. Smallpox Which of the above diseases has/have been eradicated in India?

Which of the following adds/add carbon dioxide to the carbon cycle on the planet Earth? 1. Volcanic action 2. Respiration 3. Photosynthesis 4. Decay of organic matter

What will follow if a Money Bill is substantially amended by the Rajya Sabha?

Which one of the following statements is correct?

Consider the following statements 1\. An amendment to the Constitution of India can be initiated by an introduction of a bill in the Lok Sabha only. 2\. If such an amendment seeks to make changes in the federal character of the Constitution, the amendment also requires to be ratified by the legislature of all the States of India. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Cnsider the following statements: Attorney General of India can 1\. take part in the proceedings of the Lok Sabha 2\. be a member of a committee of the Lok Sabha 3\. speak in the Lok Sabha 4\. vote in the Lok Sabha Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution? 1\. National Development Council 2\. Planning Commission 3\. Zonal Councils Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

The Parliament can make any law for whole or any part of India for implementing international treaties

The Government enacted the Panchayat Extension to Scheduled Areas (PESA) Act in 1996. Which one of the following is not identified as its objective?

Under the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, who shall be the authority to initiate the process for determining the nature and extent of individual or community forest rights or both?

‘Economic Justice’ the objectives of Constitution has been as one of the Indian provided in

According to the Constitution of India, which of the following are fundamental for the governance of the country?

Consider the following statements: The Parliamentary Committee on Public Accounts 1\. consists of not more than 25 Members of the Lok Sabha 2\. scrutinizes appropriation finance accounts of Government 3\. of the Auditor examines the report Comptroller and General of India Which of the statements given a bove is / are correct?

In the context of India, which of the following principles is/are implied institutionally in the parliamentary government? 1\. Members of the Cabinet are Members of the Parliament. 2\. Ministers hold the office till they enjoy confidence in the Parliament. 3\. Cabinet is headed by the Head of the State. Select the correct answer using the codes given below.

Consider the following statements: 1. The Council of Ministers in the Centre shall be collectively responsible to the Parliament. 2. The Union Ministers shall hold the office during the pleasure of the President of India. 3. The Prime Minister shall communicate to the President about the proposals for Iegislation. Which of the Statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements: 1\. National Development Council is an organ of the Planning Commission. 2\. The Economic and Social Planning is kept in the Concurrent List in the Constitution of India. 3\. The Constitution of India prescribes that Panchayats should be assigned the task of preparation of plans for economic development and social justice. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

Consider the following statements: 1\. The Chairman and the Deputy Chairman of the Rajya Sabha are not the members of that House. 2\. While the nominated members of the two Houses of the Parliament have no voting right in the presidential election, they have the right to vote in the election of the Vice President. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

With reference to National Legal Services Authority, consider the following statements : 1\. Its objective is to provide free and competent legal services to the weaker sections of the society on the basis of equal opportunity. 2.It issues guidelines for the State Legal Services Authorities to implement the legal programmes and schemes throughout the country. Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

In India other than ensuring that public funds are used efficiently and for intended purpose what is the importance of the office of the CAG?

The endeavour of Janine suraksha yojana programme is 1. to promote institutional deliveries 2. to provide monetary assistance to the mother to meet the cost of delivery 3. to provide for wage loss due to pregnancy and confinements **Which of the above are correct?**

The Prime Minister of India, at the time of his/ her appointment

With reference to the Delimitation Commission, consider the following statements: 1. The orders of the Delimitation Commission cannot be challenged in a Court of Law. 2. When the orders of the Delimitation Commission are laid before the Lok Sabha or State Legislative Assembly, they cannot effect any modifications in the orders. **Which of the statements given above is/are correct?**

Consider the following: 1. Hotels and restaurants 2. Motor Transport undertakings 3. Newspaper Establishments 4. Private Medical Institutions **The Employers of which of the above can have the “ Social Security coverage under Employees State Insurance Scheme?**

According to the Constitution of India, it is the duty of the President of India to cause to be laid before the Parliament which of the following? 1. The Recommendations of the Union Finance Commission 2. The Report of the Public Accounts Committee 3. The Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General 4. The Report of the National Commission for the Scheduled Castes **Select the correct answer the using the codes given below:**

A deadlock between the Lok Sabha and rajyasabha calls for a joint sitting of the parliament during the passage of 1. ordinary legislation 2. money bill 3. constitution amendment bill **Select the correct answer using the codes given below.**

How do District Rural Development Agencies (DRDAs) help in the reduction of rural poverty in India? 1. DRDAs act as Panchayati Raj Institutions in certain specified backward regions of the country. 2. DRDAs undertake area-specific scientific study of the cause of poverty and malnutrition and prepare detailed remedial measures. 3. DRDAs secure inter-sectoral and inter-departmental coordination and cooperation for effective implementation of anti-poverty programmes. 4. DRDAs watch over and ensure effective utilisation of the funds intended for anti-poverty programme. **Which of the statements given above is/ are correct?**

Which of the following is/ are among the fundamental Duties of citizens laid down in the Indian Constitution? 1. To preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture 2. To protect the weaker sections from social injustice 3. To develop the scientific temper and spirit of inquiry 4. To strive towards excellence in all spheres of individual and collective activity. **Select the correct answer using the codes given below:**

What is the provision to safeguard the autonomy of the supreme court of India? 1\. While appointing the Supreme Court judges, the president of India has to consult the CJI. 2 the SC judges can be removed by the CJI only 3 the salaries of judges are charged on the consolidated fund of India to which the legislature does not have to vote. 4\. All appointments of officers and staffs of the SC are made by the govt only after CJI

The distribution of powers between the Centre and the States in the Indian Constitution is based on the scheme provide in the

In the areas covered under the Panchayat (Extension to the Scheduled Areas) Act, 1996 what is the role/ power of Gram Sabah? 1\. Gram Sabah has the power to prevent alienation of land in the scheduled area. 2\. Gram Sabah has the ownership of minor forest produce 3\. Recommendation of gram Sabah is required for granting prospecting licence or mining lease for any mineral in the scheduled areas. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

In the parliament of India, the purpose of an adjournment motion is

Consider the following provisions under the Directive Principles of State Policy as enshrined in the Constitution of India: 1. Securing for citizens of India a uniform civil code 2. Organising village panchayats 3. Promoting cottage industries in rural areas 4. Securing for all the workers reasonable leisure and cultural opportunities. **Which of the above are the Gandhian Principles that are reflected in th Directive Principles of State Policy?**

Consider the following statements: 1\. Union territories are not presented in the Rajya Sabah 2\. It is within the purview of the Chief Election Commissioner to adjudicate the election disputes 3\. According to the constitution of India, parliament consists of Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabah only **which of the statements given above is/are correct?**

With reference to consumer’s rights / privileges under the provision of law in India which of the following statements correct? 1 Consumer are empowered to take samples for food testing 2 when consumer files a complaint in any consumer forum, no fee is required to be paid. 3\. In case of death of consumer, his/her legal heir can file a complaint in the consumer forum on his/her behalf.

Regarding the office of the Lok Sabha speaker consider the following statements: 1\. He/She holds the office during the pleasure of the President 2 He/She need not be a member of the house at the time of his/her election but has to become a member of the House within six moths from the date of his/her election 3\. If he/she intends to resign the letter of his/her resignation has to be addressed to the Deputy Speaker. **Which of the above statements given above is/are correct?**

Which of the following are included in the original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court? 1\. Dispute between the Government of India and one or more States 2\. A dispute regarding elections to either House of the parliament or that of Legislature of a State 3 A dispute between the Government of India and Union Territory 4 A disputes between two or more States. **Select the correct answer using the codes given below:**

Which of the following can be said to be essentially the parts of ‘Inclusive Governance’? 1\. Permitting the Non-Banking Financial Companies to do banking 2\. Establishing effective District Planning Committees in all the districts 3\. Increasing the government spending on public health 4\. Strengthening the Mid-day Meal Scheme **Select the correct answer using the codes given below:**

With reference to National Rural Health Mission, Which of the following are the jobs of ‘ASHA”, trained community health workers? 1. Accompanying women to the health facility for antenatal care checkup 2. Using pregnancy test kits for early detection pregnancy 3. Providing information on nutrition and immunization 4. Conducting the delivery of baby. **Select the correct answer using the codes given below:**

Which of the following is/ are the principal feature(s) of the Government of India Act, 1919? 1. Introduction of dyarchy in the executive government of the provinces. 2. Introduction of separate communal electorates for Muslims 3. Devolution of legislative authority by the centre to the provinces **Select the correct answer using the codes given below**:

Which of the following parties were established by DR. B. R. Ambedkar? 1. The Peasants and Workers party of India 2. All India Scheduled Castes Federation 3. 3 The Independent Labour Party **Select the correct answer using the codes given below:**

Which of the following special powers have been conferred on the Rajya Sabha by the Constitution of India?

Which of the following are the methods of Parliamentary control over public finance in India? 1. Placing Annual Financial Statement before the Parliament 2. Withdrawal of moneys from Consolidated Fund of India only after passing the Appropriation Bill 3. Provisions of supplementary grants and vote-on-account 4. A periodic or at least a mid-year review of programme of the Government against macroeconomic forecasts and expenditure by a Parliamentary Budget Office. 5. Introducing Finance Bill in the Parliament **Select the correct answer using the codes given below:**

Which of the following provisions of the Constitution of India have a bearing on Education? 1. Directive Principles of State Policy 2. Rural and Urban Local Bodies 3. Fifth Schedule 4. Sixth Schedule 5. Seventh Schedule S**elect the correct answer using the codes given below:**

Consider the following: 1. Right to education. 2. Right to equal access to public service. 3. Right to food. Which of the above is/are Human Right/Human Rights under “Universal Declaration of Human Rishts”?

The Constitution (Seventy-Third Amendment) Act. 1992, which aims at promoting the Panchayati Raj Institutions in the country, provides for which of the following? 1. Constitution of District Planning Committees. 2. State Election Commissions to conduct all panchayat elections. 3. Establishment of state Finance Commissions. Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

In India, if a religious sect/community is given the status of a national minority, what special advantages it is entitled to? 1. It can establish and administer exclusive educational institutions. 2. The President of India automatically nominates a representative of the community to Lok Sabha. 3. It can derive benefits from the Prime Minister’s 15-Point Programme. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

India is home to lakhs of persons with disabilities. What are the benefits available to them under the law? 1. Free schooling till the age of 18 years in government-run schools. 2. Preferential allotment of land for setting up business. 3. Ramps in public buildings. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

The authorization for the withdrawal of funds from the Consolidated Fund of India must come from

All revenues received by the Union Government by way of taxes and other receipts for the conduct of Government business are credited to the

Among the following who are eligible to benefit from the “Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Act”?

When the annual Union Budget is not passed by the Lok Sabha,

Under the constitution of India, which one of the following is not a fundamental duty?

With reference to the Finance Commission of India, which of the following statements is correct?

Consider the following statements: In India, a Metropolitan Planning Committee 1. Is constituted under the provisions of the constitution of India. 2. Prepares the draft development plans for metropolitan area. 3. Has the sole responsibility for implementing Government sponsored schemes in the metropolitan area. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

What is the difference between “vote-on-account” and “interim budget”? 1. The provision of a “vote-on-account” is used by a regular Government, while an “interim budget” is a provision used by a caretaker Government. 2. A “vote-on-account” only deals with the expenditure in Government’s budget, while an “interims budget” includes both expenditure and receipts. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

With reference to “Aam Admi Bima Yojana”, consider the following statements: 1. The member insured under the scheme must be the head of the family or an earning member of the family in a rural landless household. 2. The member insured must be in the age group of 30 to 65 years. 3. There is a provision for free scholarship for up to two children of the insured who are studying between classes 9 and 12. Which of the statements given above is/are correct?